One of the strangest and hardest accounts in the Bible to understand is an event that took place in the infamous city of Sodom. I would imagine that many have wondered as to why righteous Lot would offer his two daughters to the sex-crazed men of Sodom. Is there any logical way to understand this account?
Since the Bible offers no explanation as to Lot’s reasoning, we are left on our own to try to understand his actions.
The account is related in Genesis 19:6-11. The account goes like this: Lot offered hospitality for the night to two men who were materializedangels. As the evening progressed, the men of Sodom surrounded the house and told Lot to give them the two men so that they could have sex with them.
Lot tried to reason with the men and offered his daughters so that they could do what they wanted to them and leave the two angels alone. His reasoning was that since the two men were his guests, he would rather they abused his daughters instead of his guests.
Obviously, we find that very repulsive and would never do that! So, it is natural for us to wonder why someone that was viewed by God as a righteous man would do such a thing. Yes, Lot is described as a righteous man in 2 Peter 2:7.
Since the Bible offers no explanation as to what was going through Lot,s head or as to why he would do that, we are left to reason out things on our own. Of course we do not know the answer at this time. Still, can we at least come up with a few possible reasons as to why Lot would do that and if we were in his shoes we would do the same?
Possibility: hospitality in
Possibility: He knew that his guests were angels and that he and his family were willing even to go that far to protect their angelic guests.
Possibility: He knew that they were angels and by making such an offer, he was showing them how precious their purity was to him and Lot knew how powerful angels were and that there was no way that they would allow such a thing to take place.
Possibility: If we read Genesis 13:12-13 tells us that Lot came to live in Sodom by choice. Was this God’s way of exposing just how wicked the Sodomites had become and this was a way to bring their wickedness into the open so that God could justifiably destroy them.
Whatever Lot was thinking was no revealed. The account relates that the angels struck the men with blindness and even though blind they wore themselves out in their mad pursuit to have sex with Lot’s two guests.
So why is this account in the Bible? If God has had that account recorded, do we trust him enough to know that there must be a good and logical explanation to this strange account even though God didn’t give us the explanation? Why would it be otherwise?